I received the following question:

When Paul is pressing for the upward calling in Philippians 3, he is speaking that he wanted to be associated with the “grace extollers” rather than the “kingdom ecclesia.”  Can we assume that he receives this request and position from Ephesians 1 and the use of the personal pronouns that are there?  Therefore could we accurately state that Ephesians is written after Philippians?

That is the argument that is often used to show that Philippians must be written before Ephesians. The loss of their kingdom gifts and abilities would have been the first issue of importance to the Acts period believers. What the new plan was that God was doing instead would have been important to them only AFTER they accepted the truth that God had announced a new plan and the kingdom was postponed until some future time. This also fits with what we talked about in I Timothy 3:16. So I would tend to agree that Philippians was probably first.

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