thewell02I received the following question:

In John 4, if Jesus went to the Samaritans, why did He apostello His apostles to go not in the way of the Gentiles or even to a Samaritan city.  Sellers liked to compare His apostello with His 12’s apostello in that “As my Father has sent me, so I send you.”  Can this be looked at as an exception just like the Syro-Phoenecian woman and Cornelius, as Gentile exceptions to His apostello to the Israelites in the land?

When the Lord sent out His disciples in Matthew 10, he was not sending them with the same commission as He did when He sent them in the Acts period in John 20. That commissioning took place after His resurrection. It was then that He sent them as His Father had sent Him. And then they did go to the Samaritans (Acts 8:14,) and even to the nations (Acts 11:19-22, Galatians 2:11, etc.) It is clear that the commission of Matthew 10 only lasted until the apostles returned to Him (Luke 9:10,) and then it was completed. The commission of John 20 was a different commission, this time like the Lord’s commission. The Lord’s commission included going to the Samaritans, as we see in John 4.

As for going to the nations, Peter received a commission to do that with the household of Cornelius in Acts 10. It seems clear that there were further orders beyond what the Lord gave in John 20. The Acts period followed a progression, and as it did, the Word spread out further and further from Jerusalem, out to the most remote places where the Jews dwelt. This was different from the Lord’s commission, which only sent Him to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.

Hope that helps.

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