I received the following question:
I have a question for you. We have recently been studying/discussing the meaning and definition of “sin.” Does the definition change between the Old Testament, the Gospel Period, the Acts period, and now in the Dispensation of Grace?
The definition I’ve been given is “missing the mark.” Appropriate, but kind of vague.
My main question has to do with Christ Jesus. It focuses on sin, particularly referring to II Corinthians 5:20 & 21 – (20. Now then we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God did beseech you by us: we pray you in Christ’s stead, be ye reconciled to God. 21. For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.)
Since Jesus “knew no sin”, it has been suggested that his only sin was the fact that he died. Can the unavoidable reality of death be a sin? I have a hard time accepting this concept. I lean towards the belief that death is the consequence of the original sin, not a sin itself.
Good to hear from you! Very good question. I will answer as best I can. Read the rest of this entry »