Psalm 60

A Michtam of David. For teaching. When he fought against Mesopotamia and Syria of Zobah, and Joab returned and killed twelve thousand Edomites in the Valley of Salt.

Here we have another Michtam psalm of David, as we did in Psalms 56, 57, 58, and 59. Again The Companion Bible in Appendix 65 XII suggests that this word has to do with writing, particularly engraving. The truths that are in these psalms are important enough to be engraved, as of a permanent record that should not be forgotten.

This psalm is for teaching and gives important truths to be learned. The occasion is an interesting one, and one about which we have little information in the historical books about David’s life. David was fighting against two Aramite nations. Mesopotamia is Aram Naharayim in Hebrew, meaning “Aram of the Two Rivers.” Few would disagree that it is Mesopotamia that is meant. Aram (we tend to use the word “Syria”) were the regions north of Israel, and while Mesopotamia is north and east, one first traveled north to get there from Israel, so it makes sense that in Israel the two would be connected. In Genesis 24:10, the place where Abraham came from (Ur) is said to be Aram Naharayim. Aram Zobah (or Syria of Zobah) means “Exalted Station,” and appears to have been in what we call Syria north and east of Damascus. Read the rest of this entry »

Psalm 59

A Michtam of David when Saul sent men, and they watched the house in order to kill him.

Here we have another Michtam psalm of David, as we did in Psalms 56, 57, and 58. We have examined multiple times now the suggestion of The Companion Bible in Appendix 65 XII that this word has to do with writing, particularly engraving. Since most writing is not engraving, this indicates its importance. It is “set in stone,” as our figure of speech would have it. The truth of this Psalm is important enough that it deserves to be permanently engraved on our minds and hearts.

The occasion of the writing of this Psalm is now explained. David wrote it when Saul sent men, and they watched the house where he was in order to kill him. This incident is recorded for us in I Samuel 19:11-12, taking place right after Saul cast a spear at David in an attempt to kill him when David was playing his harp in an attempt to sooth Saul’s spirit as he was being troubled by a troublesome spirit from the LORD. Read the rest of this entry »

I received the following question:

I am developing a Timeline for an eventual Acts 28 presentation based on your article “Dispensationalism Part 4,” and I need to know where Paul’s epistles fall within the book of Acts.

In his Word of Truth article entitled “Dating the Epistles of Paul,” Mr. Milton Hammond states the following:

1. 1 Thess Acts 18:5-7 53AD

2. 2 Thess Acts 18:11 54AD

3. Galatians Acts 19:8 56AD

4. 1 Cor Acts 19:10 57AD

5. 2 Cor Acts 20:1-2 58AD

6. Rom Acts 20:3 58AD

Do you agree with this? If not, would you mind just replying with a list of your own chart? Read the rest of this entry »

I received the following question:

Can you elaborate more on II Cor. 5:8 and Phil. 3:20
A. Absent from the body (did read Sellers’ definition) but not sure.
B. Citizenship ( Greek meaning )

II Corinthians 5 is a complicated subject. It usually takes me at least 20 minutes to explain it, and it would probably take a full article to set forth what I think it is talking about. First things first, though. Have you read Mr. Sellers’ article on “Absent From the Body”? This article sets forth more or less what I would say about the issue. It is posted here:
http://www.seedandbread.org/images/stories/SS/SS12%20Absent%20From%20The%20Body.pdf

I believe this article was also sent out with the latest Bulletin from the Word of Truth Ministry, if you are on their mailing list. Read the rest of this entry »

I received the following question:

Another question do you think that “Solomon’s soul was in mortal danger” in 1 Kings 1:12 when Nathan spoke, “save your soul and the soul of your son Solomon” or do you think that is about desires?

Solomon and Bathsheba would both likely have been executed by a son of David on the throne other than Solomon himself. I do not think they would have just been reduced to poverty. Remember, Bathsheba should have died according to the law. Solomon, though he was conceived after his parents married, could be considered an illegitimate by the other sons. At the very least, David’s choice of him would mean that he was a danger to any other son of David who successfully took the throne. The death of them both would have been the only safe solution for Adonijah or any other son of David taking the throne.

I received the following question:

As I was looking at it, it seemed like Nehemiah must have been incredibly old when he sat down to write Nehemiah. I mean 7 generations of kids since the captivity! 20 years a generation would make 140 years? Granted they might be more like 15 years but that would still be 105?

Are you assuming Nehemiah is the same age as Ezra? I think he might have been younger. Joshua was probably quite a bit older than Nehemiah as well. I met some of my great-grandparents, and if I lived to see great-grandchildren that would be seven generations and not all that unusual. I mean, even if God does bless me with children, which does not seem overly likely at this point, I will not see great-grandchildren, but if I got married at 20 I might well have done. Seven generations is not all that crazy.

I received the following question:

I have a quick question concerning heaven. You know how the word heaven is used today in the Christian church how that people say they are going to heaven or that their relatives are in heaven.

I understand that the word heaven appears in the Bible over 600 times, are there any scripture verses that has the word heaven and that believer go to heaven at dead in the same verse ? I don’t think so, just want to get someone else’s opinion. Appreciate you quick response.

You are correct. No, there are no verses that say this anywhere in the Bible. The verses they stake all on are II Corinthians 5:8, misquoted as “Absent from the body, present with the Lord.” This says nothing about death or heaven, and besides being misquoted is badly translated. John 14:2, “In My Father’s house are many mansions; if it were not so, I would have told you. I go to prepare a place for you.” There is nothing saying the “Father’s house” is heaven. In fact, in John 2, the phrase (the only other place in the Word it is used) is clearly speaking of the temple in Jerusalem. Philippians 3:20, “For our citizenship is in heaven, from which we also eagerly wait for the Savior, the Lord Jesus Christ.” This verse is the “impregnable fortress” that they try to hide behind to rescue their traditional ideas. However, the meaning of the verse is far from clear, and to say that we wait for a Savior from heaven is a far cry from saying we are going there, either at death or any other time. Other than these few, misused and abused verses, there is no evidence of anyone going to heaven upon death in the Bible.

Thanks for the great question.

I received the following question:

Revelation 1:4, 11 – this speaks of “the seven ekklesias which are in Asia.” Does this mean that the territory known as the province of Asia will belong to the nation of Israel in the kingdom of God? Since all Israelites will have been restored to their own land in that day, how does it happen that there are seven ekklesias in Asia unless that territory belongs to Israel? And what is the significance of these ekklesias being only in Asia and not elsewhere in the land? Please explain.

You bring up a very good question here, and one that I have puzzled over myself. Why should any Jews be in Asia during the kingdom of God? We can of course understand why they were there when the New Testament was written, but believing as I do that this book is written to Jews of the future, not those of the past, this means that they will be living there again in the kingdom of God. Yet after thinking about it I do believe that there are some hints in the Bible as to why this must be so. Read the rest of this entry »

I received the following question:

Romans 5:14 – It is my understanding that “the figure of Him that was to come” has to refer to Moses and not to the man Adam. Deut. 18:15 certainly points to Moses. I see no “figure” in the man Adam that compares in any way to the Lord Jesus Christ. And if you read this verse leaving out the middle clause, it would be, “Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, who is the figure of Him that was to come.” Please comment.

Again, let us start out by considering Mr. Sellers’ Resultant Version. Read the rest of this entry »

I received the following question:

Colossians 2:13 – I need a more detailed explanation of this verse. I understand from Eph. 2:1 and 5 that it should read “being dead TO sins.” Why is it not the same in Col. 2:13? The whole context of Colossians, written to believers, seems to support the reading of being dead TO sins, not dead in sins. The Greek word suzoopoieo occurs only in Eph. 2:5 and Col. 2:13. Why would Paul say in Eph. 2:15, “We also being dead TO the offenses, makes us alive together in Christ Jesus,” and then tell the Colossians believers, “And you, being dead IN your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath He quickened together with Him, having forgiven you all trespasses”? It seems to me that all believers, having been made alive together in Christ Jesus, would necessarily be dead TO sins and not dead IN sins. The Companion Bible notes on verse 13 says “being, i.e. at that time.” But I don’t see anything in the Greek to indicate their past condition. Please enlighten me on this verse.

I start off by quoting Mr. Sellers’ Resultant Version of this verse, along with the notes, and my commentary on the verse. Read the rest of this entry »